Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 02:55
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why do people always talk about Ohio as it's a dangerous city?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
What was the first Native American tribe to inhabit Long Island, NY?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?